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NEW QUESTION # 203
A 78-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain. His electrocardiogram and blood work confirm an acute myocardial infarction. He is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit. Three days later, he develops right-sided abdominal pain. An ultrasonogram reveals an inflamed gallbladder with no evidence of stones. He does not improve after 48 hours of antibiotics. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: D
Explanation:
This presentation is consistent with acute acalculous cholecystitis, often seen in critically ill or post-MI patients. If unresponsive to antibiotics, percutaneous cholecystostomy is the preferred next step in those who are poor surgical candidates.
Toronto Notes 2023 - General Surgery, "Hepatobiliary Disorders" Section:
"Acalculous cholecystitis occurs in critically ill patients and is often managed with percutaneous cholecystostomy if the patient is not a candidate for surgery." MCCQE1 Objectives (Surgery > 84-3: Biliary Disease):
"Candidates must be able to diagnose and manage acalculous cholecystitis. Management includes antibiotics and drainage via percutaneous cholecystostomy in unstable patients." Laparoscopic cholecystectomy (C) is standard but not suitable in acutely ill ICU patients. Broadening antibiotics (A) alone is insufficient after failure of initial therapy. ERCP (B) is for biliary obstruction or cholangitis. HIDA scan (E) is diagnostic, not therapeutic.
NEW QUESTION # 204
A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-hour history of severe left flank pain.
Her vital signs are as follows:
* Heart rate: 94/min
* Blood pressure: 130/80 mm Hg
* Temperature: 37.3 °C
A non-contrast computed tomography shows a 6 mm stone in the distal left ureter with mild associated hydronephrosis. In addition to appropriate analgesia, which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Alpha blockers such as tamsulosin can facilitate the passage of ureteral stones, especially those between 5-10 mm. This is part of medical expulsive therapy.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Urology, Nephrolithiasis:
"Alpha blockers help relax the ureteral smooth muscle and improve stone passage in symptomatic distal ureteral stones." MCCQE1 Objectives - Surgery > Urologic Emergencies:
"Candidates should initiate medical expulsive therapy for ureteral stones under 10 mm with alpha blockers." Reassurance alone (A) is inadequate. Antibiotics (B) are not indicated without infection. IV fluids (E) do not significantly aid stone passage. Urology consult (D) is not needed unless there's infection, intractable pain, or obstruction.
NEW QUESTION # 205
A 62-year-old woman is referred to your clinic for evaluation of hypercalcemia. She has a history of hypertension and vitamin D deficiency. Her medications include hydrochlorothiazide and vitamin D supplements. Laboratory investigations are as follows:
* Calcium: 2.72 mmol/L (#)
* Phosphate: 0.9 mmol/L (#)
* Parathyroid hormone (PTH): 0.9 pmol/L (#)
* 25-hydroxy vitamin D: 80 nmol/L (normal)
Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: E
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient has hypercalcemia with suppressed PTH, ruling out primary hyperparathyroidism. The differential includes malignancy-associated hypercalcemia, vitamin D intoxication, and medications. Given the low PTH and normal vitamin D level, malignancy (e.g., multiple myeloma) is a leading concern. Serum protein electrophoresis and urine for Bence-Jones proteins (light chains) are appropriate next steps.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, "Hypercalcemia":
"PTH-independent hypercalcemia should prompt investigation for malignancy. Multiple myeloma is a common cause in older adults-order SPEP and UPEP." MCCQE1 Objectives (Endocrinology > 37-1: Calcium Disorders):
"Candidates must investigate non-PTH mediated hypercalcemia, including consideration of multiple myeloma." A (urine calcium) helps in familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia, but this is unlikely given low PTH. B (calcitriol) would worsen hypercalcemia. C is inappropriate because PTH is suppressed. D (changing HCTZ) may help, but malignancy must be ruled out first.
NEW QUESTION # 206
A 68-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, delirium tremens, and tobacco addiction comes to the Emergency Department with his daughter. She tells you that his behavior has become unmanageable and she feels he may require an increased level of care. His vital signs are:
Blood pressure: 162/105 mm Hg
Heart rate: 112/min, regular
Temperature: 37.8°C
On history, his daughter explains she had to confiscate a half-empty bottle of alcohol from his room yesterday. He is now convinced that there are bugs crawling all over him and he will not relax. He appears pale, sweaty, and shaky. His most recent blood glucose is 7.8 mmol/L (3.8-11.1). Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The presentation is consistent with acute alcohol withdrawal with delirium tremens: autonomic instability, agitation, visual hallucinations (formication), and recent alcohol reduction. This is a medical emergency requiring immediate treatment with benzodiazepines and supportive care.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, Substance Use Disorders:
"Delirium tremens is a life-threatening complication of alcohol withdrawal. Clinical features include agitation, hallucinations, tachycardia, hypertension, and diaphoresis. Management includes high-dose benzodiazepines and IV fluids." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > Substance Use Disorders:
"Candidates must recognize and treat alcohol withdrawal delirium promptly with benzodiazepines and supportive measures." Antipsychotics (B) are not first-line in withdrawal states. Private interviews (A) and psychiatric consults (D) delay life-saving treatment.
NEW QUESTION # 207
A 37-year-old man presents with chronic back, neck, and shoulder pain following a workplace injury 4 years ago. He has a history of alcohol misuse and PTSD related to the incident. Current medications (acetaminophen, naproxen, amitriptyline, gabapentin) provide inadequate pain relief. He requests oxycodone after self-trialing it with temporary benefit. After history and physical assessment, which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The patient has chronic non-cancer pain with comorbid PTSD and alcohol misuse - high-risk factors for opioid use disorder. Before any opioid prescribing, a comprehensive interdisciplinary approach including mental health and substance use support is essential.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pain Management and Addiction Medicine:
"In chronic pain patients with substance use or mental health comorbidities, refer to addiction/mental health services before considering opioid therapy." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-4: Safe Prescribing):
"Candidates must assess for substance use risk factors and manage chronic pain using a multidisciplinary approach." Imaging (A) is unlikely to alter management. Opioids (B, C) should not be first-line in this context. Cannabis (E) is not first-line and lacks robust evidence in complex chronic pain.
NEW QUESTION # 208
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